# how to perform Many to one mapping

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Jyothi Alugolu
on 20 Mar 2017

Commented: Walter Roberson
on 27 Mar 2017

hello,

i am having a bit string (say 'a') of size 756*1...and another bit string (say b) of size 576*1...now, i want many to one mapping to be performed on this bit string..

for example: the operation to be performed is shown below

b(k)= a(j) j=1....756, k= j mod 576...

##### 1 Comment

Guillaume
on 20 Mar 2017

k cannot be j mod 576 as this would produce zero indices. k could be ((j-1) mod 576)+1

### Accepted Answer

Walter Roberson
on 20 Mar 2017

##### 17 Comments

Walter Roberson
on 27 Mar 2017

What you ask for is not possible. It is meaningless to apply fft to a many-to-one mapping.

### More Answers (1)

Guillaume
on 20 Mar 2017

Is this what you're after? (I'm unclear on the result you want to obtain)

a = randi([0 1], 756, 1); %random demo data

b = randi([0 1], 576, 1); %does the content of b matter?

b = accumarray(mod(0:numel(a)-1, numel(b))'+1, a, [], @(bits) {bits})

##### 0 Comments

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